WAEC 2013 Biology Questions and Answer

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1. In which of the following levels of classification are the members most similar?

  • order
  • genus
  • species
  • phylum

2. The diagram  below represents a

  • a cell
  • filament
  • colony
  • part of a living organism

3. Pyrenoid is present in the structure labelled

  • IV
  • III
  • II
  • I

4. Spirogyra is regarded as a multicellular plant because

  • the cylindrical cells are linked end to end
  • its cells are linked together by cytoplasmic strands
  • its cells are large
  • it is an algae containing a large vacuole

5. Which of the following pairs of structures in living organisms do not perform similar functions?

  • lungs and spiracles
  • root hairs and mammalian hairs
  • feathers and scales
  • contractile vacuoles and kidneys

6. Which of the following sequences is the correct arrangement of tissues in the anatomy of a young dicotyledonous stem from inside to the outside?

  • pith, phloem, cambium, xylem, parenchyma, collenchyma and epidermis
  • xylem, phloem, cambium, corte, endodermis, collenchyma and epidermis
  • pith, xylem, cambium, phloem, collenchyma, parenchyma and epidermis
  • phloem, xylem, cambium, cortex, endodermis, collenchyma and epidermis

7. An animal which possesses scales, nares and backbone is likely to be a

  • toad
  • lizard
  • rat
  • bat

8. The opening of guard cells in the epidermis of plants is by the process of

  • osmosis
  • diffusion
  • active transport
  • transpiration

9. What happens to a plant if the shoot tipis cut off and replaced by an agar block containing auxin? It will

  • stop growing
  • grow rapidly
  • continue to grow rapidly
  • die completely

10. Anaerobic respiration results in the production of

  • more energy than aerobic respiration
  • no energy
  • an equal amount of energy to aerobic respiration
  • less energy than aerobic respiration

11. Which of the following is not a skeletal tissue?

  • plasma
  • chitin
  • cartilage
  • bone

12. Which of the following statements is not correct about the mammalian heart?

  • oxygenated blood enters the left auricle from the pulmonary vein
  • the walls of the ventricle are thicker than those of the auricle
  • blood passes from the right ventricle to the left auricle through the aorta
  • the tricuspid valve prevents the back flow of blood into the right auricle

13. Which of the following organs are used for gaseous exchange in a mature toad?

  • gills, lungs and eardrum
  • lungs, mouth and eardrum
  • mouth, skin and gills
  • skin, lungs and mouth

14. Which of the following structures is used for respiration in insects?

  • lungs
  • thorax
  • curticle
  • spiracle

15. Which of the following statements about the diaphragm of a mammal is not correct? It

  • separates the thorax and the abdomen
  • is a thick layer of muscle
  • is made of epithelial cells
  • is part of the human respiratory apparatus

16. A substance present in the glomerular filtrate in the mammalian kidney is

  • glucose
  • fibrinogen
  • albumen
  • blood platelets

17. In human’s, excretion of the hypertonic urine is associated with

  • distal convoluted tube
  • loop of henle
  • bowman’s capsule
  • proximal convoluted tube

18. The maintenance of a stable internal environment within the body of a mammal is known as

  • osmosis
  • plasmolysis
  • homeostasis
  • excretion

19. Which part of the nephron is associated with ultra-filtration?

  • distal convoluted tube
  • proximal convoluted tube
  • collecting duct
  • boman’s capsule

20. Which of the following conditions would result in a decrease in the production of anti-diuretic hormone?

  • abnormally high blood sugar level
  • drinking large quantities of water
  • increase in osmotic pressure of blood
  • period of strenuos exercise

21. Which of the following structures is not essential in a wind pollinated flower?

  • anther
  • ovary
  • stigma
  • petal

22. Study the diagram below and answer questions 22 – 24.

Which part of the flower produces the structure labelled III

  • carpel
  • pollen
  • stigma
  • anther

23. The parts labelled III and IV respectively are called

  • pollen tube and style
  • pollen grain and pollen tube
  • anther and filament
  • stigma and style

24. Which of the labelled parts would become a component of the seed after fertilization

  • I
  • II
  • IV
  • V

25. The resolution of a microscope refers to its power to

  • increase an object’s apparent size
  • distinguish clearly between objects
  • scan the surface of an object
  • focus on an object

26. The process by which plants manufacture food from carbon dioxide and water using energy from the sun is called

  • chemosynthesis
  • photosynthesis
  • anabolism
  • catabolism

27. Conduction of water and mineral salts through the xylem vessels is enhanced because the xylem cells are

  • thickened with lignin
  • long, narrow tubes placed end to end
  • close to the endoderms
  • centrally placed in the roots

28. Which of the following factors is likely to increase the rate of transpiration in plants?

  • a reduction in the number of stomata per unit surface area
  • increase in humidity around the leaves of plant
  • an increase in leaf surface area to volume ratio
  • removal of leaves from plant

29. The name of the enzyme that catalyzes glucose conversion to glucose-6-phosphate at the beginning of glycolysis is

  • phospho-fructokinase
  • glucose isomerase
  • hexokinase
  • glucose-6-kinase

30. The correct arrangement of food classes of the same quantity in the order of magnitude of energy value in animals in descending order is

  • carbohydrates, fats, oil, water, protein
  • fats, oil, carbohydrates, protein, water
  • water, fats, oil, carbohydrates, protein, water
  • protein, fats, oil, water, carbohydrates

31. Which of the following substance is not a complex carbohydrate?

  • glycogen
  • cellulose
  • starch
  • glucose

32. Which of the following associations is an example of epiphytism?

  • lice in the human hair
  • mistle toe on citrus fruit
  • egret on cow
  • fern on palm tree

33. Study the diagram and answer questions 33 and 34.

What is the likely food of bird I?

  • worms
  • seed
  • nectar
  • fishes

34. The food of bird II is

  • worms
  • seed
  • nectar
  • fishes

35. Ecology simply means the study of

  • particular species ofplants and animals
  • interrelationship between organisms and their environment
  • the properties of a habitat
  • the inter-relationship between plants and animals

36. The maximum size of a popilation that any given area can support is known as

  • population density
  • carrying capacity
  • population growth
  • maximum population

37. The producers in a food chain in an aquatic environment are

  • birds
  • phytoplankton
  • zooplankton
  • fishes

38. The frog is considered a better swimmer than the Toad because it

  • has more pronounce webbed digits
  • has much stronger and longer hind limbs
  • lives in water most of the time
  • is more streamlined than the Toad

39. The Bacteria that reduce nitrates in the soil gaseous nitrogen are referred to as

  • nitrifying bacteria
  • denitrifying bacteria
  • putrefying bacteria
  • saprophtytic bacteria

40. A pyramid of numbers is constructed by

  • comparing living and non-living things
  • measuring productivity
  • conducting census
  • labelling the organisms

41. The main reason for immunizing children is to

  • destroy pathogens in their bodies
  • increase the production of white blood cells
  • stimulate the production of antibodies
  • stimulate the production of antigens

42. Rhizobium which lives in the root nodules of leguminous plants is an example of the association known as

  • commensalism
  • epiphytism
  • mutualism
  • sapropytism

43. Acscaris lumbricoides is a parasitic

  • flatworm
  • round worm
  • arthropod
  • elastic worm

44. The following organisms are pests of plants except

  • birds
  • nematodes
  • rodents

45. The absence of alimentary canal in the parasitic flatworm can be attributed to the fact that

  • its body does not feed
  • it has no enzymes
  • its body absorbs digested food
  • it has suckers on the solex

46. Which of the following human activities would help prevent endangered species from extinction?

  • uncontrolled gardens
  • regular clearing of the forest vegetation
  • temporary maintenance of species in zoological gardens
  • regular irrigation of their natural habitats

47. Which of the following statements is not a reason for conserving wildlife?

  • attraction of tourists into the country
  • serving as a source of food
  • serving as a source of income
  • increasing the amount of rainfall

48. In genetics, linkage refers to the linking of the gene of the

  • same chromosomes
  • different chromosomes
  • same nucleus
  • different nuclei

49. A man’s blood group is AB. What is the probability of the man giving birth to a child with blood group O?

  • 0%
  • 25%
  • 50%
  • 100%

50. When a man who is Rh-positive marries a woman who is Rh-negative, there will be incidence of

  • still births
  • sicklers
  • albinos
  • living children

51. The genotype ratio of the offspring of a hybrid ie 1:2:1, which of the following laws illustrates this ratio?

  • use and disuse
  • dominance
  • segregation
  • linkage

52. A gene that is located on the X-chromosome is said to be

  • expressed in females only
  • defective
  • sex-linked
  • expressed in males only

53. If a boy has blood type O and his mother has blood type A, what is the genotype of the father?

  • bb
  • aa
  • ao
  • ab

54. A man who suffers from haemophilia marries a woman who is a carrier, what percentage of their children are likely to be haemophilia?

  • 25%
  • 50%
  • 75%
  • 100%

55. Which of the following traits may be considered in marriage counselling?

  • height
  • finger prints
  • rhesus factor
  • colour of skin

56. Which of the following structures is formed during cell division in animal cells?

  • cell membrane
  • cytoplasm
  • centrosome
  • ribosome

57. The function of the drone in a colony of bees is to

  • clean the cells
  • mate with the queen
  • protect the colony
  • lay eggs

58. Which of the following features is used by chameleons to escape predation?

  • fearsome appearance
  • coiling tail
  • offensive smell
  • adaptive colouration

59. A scientist who was involved in the development of evolution theory is

  • lamarck
  • mendel
  • morgan
  • pasteur

60. Darwin noticed that organisms in similar habitats across the world looked alike. This illustrates

  • convergent evolution
  • adaptive radiation
  • co-evolution
  • descent with modification

ANSWERS

  1. C
  2. B
  3. C
  4. B
  5. B
  6. C
  7. B
  8. A
  9. B
  10. D
  11. A
  12. C
  13. D
  14. D
  15. C
  16. A
  17. A
  18. C
  19. D
  20. A
  21. D
  22. C
  23. A
  24. A
  25. A
  26. B
  27. B
  28. C
  29. C
  30. B
  31. D
  32. C
  33. C
  34. B
  35. B
  36. A
  37. B
  38. A
  39. C
  40. C
  41. C
  42. C
  43. B
  44. C
  45. C
  46. D
  47. B
  48. A
  49. A
  50. D
  51. C
  52. C
  53. B
  54. C
  55. C
  56. B
  57. D
  58. A
  59. A